Question Number 17255 by Arnab Maiti last updated on 02/Jul/17
$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\frac{\Pi}{\mathrm{2}}} \:\frac{\mathrm{d}\left(\mathrm{sinx}+\mathrm{cosx}\right)}{\mathrm{sinx}+\mathrm{cosx}} \\ $$
Answered by prakash jain last updated on 02/Jul/17
$$\mathrm{ln}\:\left(\mathrm{sin}\:{x}+\mathrm{cos}\:{x}\right)\mid_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\pi/\mathrm{2}} =\mathrm{ln}\:\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{ln}\:\mathrm{1}=\mathrm{0} \\ $$
Commented byArnab Maiti last updated on 02/Jul/17
$$\mathrm{Thank}\:\mathrm{you}\:\mathrm{sir}. \\ $$