Question Number 100285 by DGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20

Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 26/Jun/20

p =((1−a^2^(n+1)  )/(1−a^2 ))    we can prove this by recurrence  (a^2  ≠1)

Commented byCoronavirus last updated on 26/Jun/20

👁️👁️ I'm just seeing

Commented byDGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20

Commented byDGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20

please sir check !😔

Commented byabdomsup last updated on 27/Jun/20

correct

Commented byDGmichael last updated on 27/Jun/20

😁😁 thanks 😊😊