Question Number 103397 by frc2crc last updated on 14/Jul/20

I(n)=∫_0 ^∞ ((ln x)/(cosh^n x ))dx  is there a simpler way to  calculat those values

Answered by Aziztisffola last updated on 14/Jul/20

you can use Laplace transform, it′s  the best way to do that, mybe there are  the others.

Commented byfrc2crc last updated on 14/Jul/20

i couldn′tfind anything

Commented bymathmax by abdo last updated on 15/Jul/20

can you take a try sir aziz...

Commented byAziztisffola last updated on 16/Jul/20

I try it but I don′t found the solution  right now .