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Question Number 178452 by cortano1 last updated on 16/Oct/22

         show that      ((p∧q)⇒r)⇒((p∧∼r)⇒∼q)     is tautology

$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\mathrm{show}\:\mathrm{that}\: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\left(\left(\mathrm{p}\wedge\mathrm{q}\right)\Rightarrow\mathrm{r}\right)\Rightarrow\left(\left(\mathrm{p}\wedge\sim\mathrm{r}\right)\Rightarrow\sim\mathrm{q}\right) \\ $$$$\:\:\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{tautology}\: \\ $$

Answered by Spillover last updated on 17/Oct/22

Commented by cortano1 last updated on 17/Oct/22

nice

$$\mathrm{nice} \\ $$

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