Question Number 182636 by mathlove last updated on 12/Dec/22 | ||
$$\underset{−\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\mathrm{3}} {\int}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:{dx}=? \\ $$ | ||
Commented by mr W last updated on 12/Dec/22 | ||
$$=\int_{−\mathrm{1}} ^{\mathrm{0}} +\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{3}} \:\Rightarrow{not}\:{convergent}! \\ $$ | ||
Commented by mathlove last updated on 12/Dec/22 | ||
$${thanks} \\ $$ | ||