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Question Number 186190 by normans last updated on 02/Feb/23

      My old problem..           ∫_0 ^(+∞)   ((tan^(−1) (1−cos(x)))/x^2 )  dx

$$ \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\boldsymbol{{My}}\:\boldsymbol{{old}}\:\boldsymbol{{problem}}.. \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{+\infty} {\int}}\:\:\frac{\mathrm{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left(\mathrm{1}−\boldsymbol{{cos}}\left(\boldsymbol{{x}}\right)\right)}{\boldsymbol{{x}}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:\:\boldsymbol{{dx}}\:\:\: \\ $$$$ \\ $$

Commented by MJS_new last updated on 02/Feb/23

I don′t think an exact solution is possible

$$\mathrm{I}\:\mathrm{don}'\mathrm{t}\:\mathrm{think}\:\mathrm{an}\:\mathrm{exact}\:\mathrm{solution}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{possible} \\ $$

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