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Question Number 187050 by normans last updated on 13/Feb/23

            ∫^(𝛑/4) _0   ((cos^(−1) x + cos x)/(Ln x))  dx =??

$$\: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\int}^{\frac{\boldsymbol{\pi}}{\mathrm{4}}} \:\:\frac{\boldsymbol{{cos}}^{−\mathrm{1}} \boldsymbol{{x}}\:+\:\boldsymbol{{cos}}\:\boldsymbol{{x}}}{\boldsymbol{{Ln}}\:\boldsymbol{{x}}}\:\:\boldsymbol{{dx}}\:=??\:\:\: \\ $$$$ \\ $$

Commented by Frix last updated on 13/Feb/23

You must approximate once more.

$$\mathrm{You}\:\mathrm{must}\:\mathrm{approximate}\:\mathrm{once}\:\mathrm{more}. \\ $$

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