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Question Number 25655 by rita1608 last updated on 12/Dec/17

use lagranges mean value theorem to  prove that   x<sin^(−1) x<(x/(√(1−x^2 ))),0<x<1.

$${use}\:{lagranges}\:{mean}\:{value}\:{theorem}\:{to} \\ $$ $${prove}\:{that}\: \\ $$ $${x}<{sin}^{−\mathrm{1}} {x}<\frac{{x}}{\sqrt{\mathrm{1}−{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }},\mathrm{0}<{x}<\mathrm{1}. \\ $$

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