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Question Number 88611 by M±th+et£s last updated on 11/Apr/20

prove that  ((1+p^2 +p^4 +......+p^(2n) )/(p+p^3 +p^5 +.....p^(2n−1) ))>((n+1)/(np))

$${prove}\:{that} \\ $$ $$\frac{\mathrm{1}+{p}^{\mathrm{2}} +{p}^{\mathrm{4}} +......+{p}^{\mathrm{2}{n}} }{{p}+{p}^{\mathrm{3}} +{p}^{\mathrm{5}} +.....{p}^{\mathrm{2}{n}−\mathrm{1}} }>\frac{{n}+\mathrm{1}}{{np}} \\ $$

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