Question Number 92214 by hovero clinton last updated on 05/May/20
Commented by mathmax by abdo last updated on 05/May/20
$${for}\:{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{+} \:\:{we}\:{see}\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{lnx}}<\mathrm{0}\:\:\:{so}\:{we}\:{can}\:{t}\:{use}\:{expo}\:...!\:\:{perhaps}\:{the} \\ $$$${Q}\:{is}\:{gind}\:{lim}_{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{+} } \:\:\:\:\left(−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{lnx}}\right)^{\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{ln}\left({e}^{{x}} −\mathrm{1}\right)}} .... \\ $$