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Question Number 195015 by mustafazaheen last updated on 22/Jul/23
Answered by mathlove last updated on 22/Jul/23
$${ass}\Rightarrow{x}=\mathrm{1} \\ $$$${f}\left(\mathrm{1}\right)=\frac{\mathrm{2}}{\mathrm{0}^{{ln}\mathrm{5}} }=\infty \\ $$$$\mathrm{1}\notin{domf}\left({x}\right) \\ $$