show-that-dx-1-x-tan-x-2-pi- Tinku Tara June 4, 2023 Integration 0 Comments FacebookTweetPin Question Number 90003 by M±th+et£s last updated on 20/Apr/20 $${show}\:{that} \\ $$$$\int_{−\infty} ^{\infty} \frac{{dx}}{\mathrm{1}+\left({x}+{tan}\left({x}\right)\right)^{\mathrm{2}\:} }=\pi \\ $$ Terms of Service Privacy Policy Contact: info@tinkutara.com FacebookTweetPin Post navigation Previous Previous post: Two-blocks-of-masses-m-1-and-m-2-are-placed-in-contact-with-each-other-on-a-horizontal-platform-The-coefficient-of-friction-between-the-platform-and-the-two-blocks-is-the-same-The-platform-moves-wNext Next post: Question-155537 Leave a Reply Cancel replyYour email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *Comment * Name * Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment.
