Question Number 216969 by issac last updated on 25/Feb/25
$$\mathrm{6}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}}\%=\mathrm{6}×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}}×\frac{\mathrm{0}}{\mathrm{0}}=\frac{\mathrm{3}}{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$
Commented by issac last updated on 25/Feb/25
$$\mathrm{Q216913} \\ $$