Question Number 222356 by wewji12 last updated on 23/Jun/25

$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \:{f}\left({r}\right)\mathrm{d}{r}=\mathrm{1}\:,\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \:\mathrm{g}\left({r}\right)\mathrm{d}{r}=\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\int_{−\infty\boldsymbol{{i}}+\boldsymbol{\gamma}} ^{\:\:\infty\boldsymbol{{i}}+\boldsymbol{\gamma}} \:{F}\left({t}\right){G}\left({t}\right)\mathrm{d}{t}=?? \\ $$$${F}\left({t}\right)=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \:{f}\left({r}\right){e}^{−{rt}} \mathrm{d}{r}\:,\:{G}\left({t}\right)=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \:\mathrm{g}\left({r}\right){e}^{−{rt}} \mathrm{d}{r} \\ $$
Answered by MrGaster last updated on 25/Jun/25
