Question Number 222599 by MrGaster last updated on 01/Jul/25

$$\underset{{k}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{k}+\mathrm{1}} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\left(\mathrm{2}{k}−\mathrm{1}\right)^{\mathrm{2}{n}+\mathrm{1}} }=\frac{\pi^{\mathrm{2}{n}+\mathrm{1}} }{\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{2}{n}+\mathrm{2}} \left(\mathrm{2}{n}\right)!}\mid{E}_{\mathrm{2}{m}} \mid \\ $$
Commented by MathematicalUser2357 last updated on 01/Jul/25

$$\mathrm{Prove}\:\underset{{k}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{k}+\mathrm{1}} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\left(\mathrm{2}{k}−\mathrm{1}\right)^{\mathrm{2}{n}+\mathrm{1}} }=\frac{\pi^{\mathrm{2}{n}+\mathrm{1}} }{\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{2}{n}+\mathrm{2}} \left(\mathrm{2}{n}\right)!}\mid{E}_{\mathrm{2}{m}} \mid,\:\mathrm{so}? \\ $$