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Prove-that-0-pi-2-tan-1-r-sin-d-2-2-1-r-2-1-r-




Question Number 223193 by Tawa11 last updated on 17/Jul/25
Prove that:         ∫_( 0) ^( (π/2))  tan^(− 1) (r sin θ) dθ   =   2𝛘_2 ((((√(1  +  r^2 ))  −  1)/r))
$$\mathrm{Prove}\:\mathrm{that}: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\int_{\:\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}} \:\mathrm{tan}^{−\:\mathrm{1}} \left(\mathrm{r}\:\mathrm{sin}\:\theta\right)\:\mathrm{d}\theta\:\:\:=\:\:\:\mathrm{2}\boldsymbol{\chi}_{\mathrm{2}} \left(\frac{\sqrt{\mathrm{1}\:\:+\:\:\mathrm{r}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:\:−\:\:\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{r}}\right) \\ $$

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