Question Number 32732 by caravan msup abdo. last updated on 31/Mar/18
$${give}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\:\frac{\left({lnx}\right)^{{p}} }{\mathrm{1}−{x}}\:{dx}\:{at}\:{form}\:{of}\:{seriewith} \\ $$$${p}\geqslant\mathrm{2}\:. \\ $$
give-0-1-lnx-p-1-x-dx-at-form-of-seriewith-p-2-