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Prove-0-1-ln-ln-1-x-1-x-2-dx-1-2-ln-pi-2-




Question Number 219618 by Nicholas666 last updated on 29/Apr/25
          Prove;      ∫_0 ^( 1)   ((ln ln (1/x))/((1+x)^2 )) dx = (1/2)(ln((π/2))−γ)
$$ \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:{Prove}; \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\mathrm{1}} \:\:\frac{{ln}\:{ln}\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}}{\left(\mathrm{1}+{x}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} }\:{dx}\:=\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\left({ln}\left(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}\right)−\gamma\right) \\ $$$$ \\ $$

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