Question Number 221438 by Nicholas666 last updated on 05/Jun/25
$$ \\ $$$$\:\:\:\int_{\:\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{ln}\:{x}\right)}{\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{2}{x}\:\mathrm{cos}\:\theta\:+\:{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:{dx}\:;\:\mathrm{for}\:\mathrm{all}\:\theta\:\in\:\left(−\pi\:,\:\pi\right)\:\:\:\:\: \\ $$$$ \\ $$