Question Number 222855 by MrGaster last updated on 09/Jul/25
$$\mathrm{Prove}:\int_{−\pi} ^{\pi} {x}\:\mathrm{ln}\:\left(\mathrm{1}+\mathrm{sin}\:{x}\:+\mathrm{cos}\:{x}\right){dx}=\mathrm{2}\pi{G} \\ $$
Answered by MrGaster last updated on 09/Jul/25
