Question Number 65915 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 05/Aug/19
![let p prime not 0 and n integr /1≤n<p prove that (((p−1)(p−2)....(p−n))/(n!)) −(−1)^n is integr and divided by p](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q65915.png)
$${let}\:{p}\:{prime}\:{not}\:\mathrm{0}\:\:{and}\:{n}\:{integr}\:/\mathrm{1}\leqslant{n}<{p}\:{prove}\:{that} \\ $$$$\frac{\left({p}−\mathrm{1}\right)\left({p}−\mathrm{2}\right)….\left({p}−{n}\right)}{{n}!}\:−\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{n}} \:\:{is}\:{integr}\:{and}\:{divided}\:{by}\:{p} \\ $$