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Question Number 139002 by BHOOPENDRA last updated on 21/Apr/21 Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 22/Apr/21 $${Probability}\:\:\int_{−\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}} ^{\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}} \mid\Psi\left({x}\right)\mid^{\mathrm{2}} {dx}=\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$=\int_{−\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}} ^{\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}} {A}^{\mathrm{2}}…